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#	Question	Answer
1	Which discipline is described as the youngest of the formalised disciplines of natural science?	Biology.
2	Compared to biology, which sciences progressed much faster?	Physics and Chemistry.
3	In which centuries was the utility of biological knowledge strongly demonstrated?	Twentieth and twenty-first centuries.
4	Name two sectors where biological knowledge has furthered human welfare.	Health sector and agriculture.
5	Which medical discoveries changed medical practice and human health?	Discovery of antibiotics, synthetic plant-derived drugs, and anaesthetics.
6	What major human parameter changed dramatically over the years due to advances in biology?	Life expectancy of human beings.
7	Which practices brought socio-cultural changes in human communities?	Agricultural practices, food processing, and diagnostics.
8	Which institute established the School of Cytogenetics and Radiation Research?	Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).
9	What varieties of rice were developed by Swaminathan and his team?	Short-duration high-yielding varieties of rice including scented Basmati.
10	Which concepts were developed by M.S. Swaminathan?	Crop cafeteria, crop scheduling, and genetically improving yield and quality.
11	With whom did M.S. Swaminathan collaborate for the Green Revolution?	Norman Borlaug.
12	What led to the Green Revolution in India?	Introduction of Mexican varieties of wheat in India.
13	Which prestigious award was awarded to M.S. Swaminathan?	Padma Bhushan.
14	Which systems influence the immune system according to biology?	Neural system and endocrine system.
15	Which system maintains our health according to modern biology?	Immune system.
16	Mention three major factors affecting health.	Genetic disorders, infections, and lifestyle.
17	What does lifestyle include in relation to health?	Food and water intake, rest, exercise, and habits.
18	Define health .	Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
19	How does good health affect productivity and economy?	Healthy people are more efficient at work, increasing productivity and economic prosperity.
20	How does health influence longevity and mortality?	Good health increases longevity and reduces infant and maternal mortality.
21	Name three important measures to maintain good health.	Balanced diet, personal hygiene, and regular exercise.
22	Which traditional practice is mentioned for achieving physical and mental health?	Yoga.
23	What measures are necessary for achieving good health?	Awareness about diseases, vaccination, proper disposal of wastes, vector control, and maintenance of hygiene in food and water resources.
24	What is a disease according to the text?	Disease is a condition in which functioning of one or more organs or systems is adversely affected, showing signs and symptoms.
25	Into which two broad categories are diseases grouped?	Infectious and non-infectious diseases.
26	What are infectious diseases?	Diseases easily transmitted from one person to another.
27	Which infectious disease is specifically mentioned as fatal?	AIDS.
28	Which non-infectious disease is a major cause of death?	Cancer.
29	What are pathogens?	Disease-causing organisms.
30	Why are most parasites considered pathogens?	Because they harm the host by living in or on them.
31	How do pathogens affect the human body?	They enter the body, multiply, and interfere with normal vital activities causing morphological and functional damage.
32	What challenge must gut pathogens overcome to survive?	They must survive low pH in the stomach and resist digestive enzymes.
33	Which test is used to confirm typhoid fever?	Widal test.
34	Which bacteria cause pneumonia in humans?	*Streptococcus pneumoniae* and *Haemophilus influenzae*.
35	Which part of the lungs is infected in pneumonia?	Alveoli (air-filled sacs).
36	What happens to alveoli during pneumonia infection?	They get filled with fluid leading to severe respiratory problems.
37	Mention common symptoms of pneumonia.	Fever, chills, cough, and headache.
38	What colour change may occur in severe pneumonia cases?	Lips and fingernails may turn gray to bluish.
39	How does pneumonia spread?	By inhaling droplets/aerosols from infected persons or sharing glasses and utensils.
40	Name some bacterial diseases mentioned besides pneumonia.	Dysentery, plague, and diphtheria.
41	Which viruses cause the common cold?	Rhino viruses.
42	Which body parts are infected by common cold viruses?	Nose and respiratory passage, but not the lungs.
43	Mention symptoms of the common cold.	Nasal congestion, discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, and tiredness.
44	How long do common cold symptoms usually last?	3–7 days.
45	How is common cold transmitted?	Through droplets from cough/sneezes or contaminated objects like pens, books, cups, doorknobs, keyboards, and mouse.
46	Which protozoan causes malaria?	*Plasmodium*.
47	Name the species of *Plasmodium* mentioned in the text.	*P. vivax, P. malaria,* and *P. falciparum*.
48	Which type of malaria is the most serious and fatal?	Malignant malaria caused by *Plasmodium falciparum*.
49	In which form does *Plasmodium* enter the human body?	Sporozoites.
50	Which mosquito transmits malaria?	Infected female *Anopheles* mosquito.
51	Where do malarial parasites initially multiply in humans?	Liver cells.
52	Which blood cells are attacked and ruptured by malarial parasites?	Red blood cells (RBCs).
53	Which toxic substance released during malaria causes chills and fever?	Haemozoin.
54	How frequently do chills and high fever recur in malaria?	Every three to four days.
55	Where are sporozoites stored in the mosquito body?	Salivary glands.
56	Which two hosts are required to complete the life cycle of *Plasmodium*?	Human and mosquito.
57	What is the vector of malaria?	Female *Anopheles* mosquito.
58	Which protozoan causes amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery)?	*Entamoeba histolytica*.
59	Where does *Entamoeba histolytica* live in humans?	Large intestine.
60	Mention symptoms of amoebiasis.	Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with excess mucus and blood clots.
61	What role do houseflies play in amoebiasis?	They act as mechanical carriers transmitting parasites from faeces to food.
62	What is the main source of amoebiasis infection?	Drinking water and food contaminated by faecal matter.
63	Which helminths mentioned are pathogenic to humans?	*Ascaris* and *Wuchereria*.
64	What disease is caused by *Ascaris*?	Ascariasis.
65	What are the symptoms of ascariasis?	Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia, and blockage of intestinal passage.
66	How does ascariasis spread?	Through contaminated water, vegetables, fruits, soil, and plants contaminated by eggs in faeces.
67	Which species of *Wuchereria* are mentioned in the text?	*Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Wuchereria malayi*.
68	What disease is caused by filarial worms?	Elephantiasis or filariasis.
69	Which body parts are mainly affected in elephantiasis?	Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and genital organs.
70	How are filarial worms transmitted?	Through the bite of female mosquito vectors.
71	Which fungal genera cause ringworm?	*Microsporum, Trichophyton,* and *Epidermophyton*.
72	What are the symptoms of ringworm?	Dry, scaly lesions with intense itching on skin, nails, and scalp.
73	Which conditions favour the growth of ringworm fungi?	Heat and moisture.
74	Which body areas commonly support ringworm growth?	Skin folds such as groin and between toes.
75	How is ringworm generally acquired?	From soil or by using towels, clothes, or combs of infected individuals.
76	Why is maintenance of personal and public hygiene important?	For prevention and control of infectious diseases.
77	Mention measures of personal hygiene.	Keeping the body clean and consuming clean drinking water, food, vegetables, and fruits.
78	Mention measures of public hygiene.	Proper disposal of waste and excreta, cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools, and tanks.
79	Which diseases are transmitted through food and water?	Typhoid, amoebiasis, and ascariasis.
80	What additional precaution is necessary for air-borne diseases like pneumonia and common cold?	Avoid close contact with infected persons or their belongings.
81	What is the most important preventive measure for malaria and filariasis?	Control or elimination of vectors and their breeding places.
82	How can mosquito breeding be prevented?	By avoiding water stagnation and regularly cleaning household coolers.
83	Which fish is introduced into ponds to feed on mosquito larvae?	*Gambusia*.
84	Which diseases spread through *Aedes* mosquitoes are mentioned?	Dengue and chikungunya.
85	Which deadly disease has been completely eradicated through vaccination?	Smallpox.
86	Which diseases have been controlled by vaccines?	Polio, diphtheria, pneumonia, and tetanus.
87	What is immunity?	The overall ability of the host to fight disease-causing organisms conferred by the immune system.
88	Name the two types of immunity.	Innate immunity and acquired immunity.
89	What is innate immunity?	Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence present at the time of birth.
90	How does innate immunity protect the body?	By providing different types of barriers against entry of foreign agents.
91	Name the four types of barriers in innate immunity.	Physical, physiological, cellular, and cytokine barriers.
92	What is the main physical barrier in innate immunity?	Skin.
93	How does mucus help in innate immunity?	It traps microbes entering the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and urogenital tracts.
94	Mention physiological barriers in innate immunity.	Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, and tears from eyes.
95	Which leukocytes act as cellular barriers in innate immunity?	PMNL-neutrophils, monocytes, natural killer cells, and macrophages.
96	What is the role of interferons in innate immunity?	They protect non-infected cells from viral infection.
97	What is acquired immunity?	Pathogen-specific immunity characterised by memory.
98	What is primary immune response?	The low-intensity response produced during first encounter with a pathogen.
99	What is secondary or anamnestic response?	A highly intensified response during subsequent encounter with the same pathogen.
100	Which lymphocytes are involved in acquired immunity?	B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
101	What do B-lymphocytes produce?	Antibodies.
102	What is the role of T-cells in antibody production?	They help B-cells produce antibodies.
103	How many peptide chains are present in an antibody molecule?	Four peptide chains.
104	Name the two types of peptide chains in antibodies.	Two light chains and two heavy chains.
105	Name some types of antibodies found in the body.	IgA, IgM, IgE, and IgG.
106	Why is antibody-mediated immunity called humoral immune response?	Because antibodies are found in the blood.
107	Which cells mediate cell-mediated immunity (CMI)?	T-lymphocytes.
108	Why are tissue matching and blood group matching necessary before transplantation?	To prevent graft rejection.
109	Which immune response is responsible for graft rejection?	Cell-mediated immune response.
110	What is active immunity?	Immunity produced when antibodies are formed in the host body after exposure to antigens.
111	Why is active immunity considered slow?	Because it takes time to produce a full effective response.
112	What induces active immunity?	Immunisation or natural infection.
113	What is passive immunity?	Immunity obtained by directly giving ready-made antibodies.
114	Which antibody is abundant in colostrum?	IgA.
115	How does a foetus receive passive immunity from the mother?	Through the placenta during pregnancy.
116	On which property of the immune system is vaccination based?	Memory.
117	What is introduced into the body during vaccination?	Antigenic proteins of pathogens or inactivated/weakened pathogens (vaccines).
118	How do vaccines protect the body?	Antibodies produced against vaccine antigens neutralise pathogens during actual infection.
119	Which memory cells are generated by vaccines?	Memory B-cells and T-cells.
120	Why are preformed antibodies injected in diseases like tetanus?	Because a quick immune response is required.
121	What is antitoxin?	A preparation containing antibodies to toxins.
122	What type of immunisation is used in snakebite treatment?	Passive immunisation.
123	How has recombinant DNA technology helped vaccine production?	It enabled production of antigenic polypeptides in bacteria or yeast for large-scale vaccine production.
124	Which vaccine produced from yeast is mentioned in the text?	Hepatitis B vaccine.
125	What is allergy?	An exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens in the environment.
126	What are allergens?	Substances that trigger allergic immune responses.
127	Which type of antibody is associated with allergy?	IgE.
128	Give examples of common allergens.	Dust mites, pollens, and animal dander.
129	Mention symptoms of allergic reactions.	Sneezing, watery eyes, running nose, and difficulty in breathing.
130	Which chemicals released from mast cells cause allergy symptoms?	Histamine and serotonin.
131	Which drugs are used to reduce allergy symptoms?	Anti-histamines, adrenalin, and steroids.
132	What is auto-immunity?	A condition in which the body attacks its own cells.
133	Name an auto-immune disease mentioned in the text.	Rheumatoid arthritis.
134	What does the human immune system consist of?	Lymphoid organs, tissues, cells, and soluble molecules like antibodies.
135	What are lymphoid organs?	Organs where origin, maturation, and proliferation of lymphocytes occur.
136	Name the primary lymphoid organs.	Bone marrow and thymus.
137	What happens in primary lymphoid organs?	Immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.
138	What is the function of secondary lymphoid organs?	They provide sites for interaction of lymphocytes with antigens and formation of effector cells.
139	Which is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells are produced?	Bone marrow.
140	Where is the thymus located?	Near the heart and beneath the breastbone.
141	What happens to the thymus with age?	It reduces in size after puberty.
142	Which lymphocytes mature in bone marrow and thymus?	T-lymphocytes.
143	What is the shape of the spleen?	Bean-shaped.
144	Which cells are mainly present in the spleen?	Lymphocytes and phagocytes.
145	What is the main function of the spleen?	It filters blood by trapping blood-borne microorganisms.
146	What reservoir is present in the spleen?	A large reservoir of erythrocytes.
147	What are lymph nodes?	Small solid structures located at different points along the lymphatic system.
148	What is the function of lymph nodes?	They trap microorganisms and antigens present in lymph and tissue fluid.
149	What activates lymphocytes in lymph nodes?	Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes.
150	What is MALT?	Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue located within the lining of major tracts.
151	Which tracts contain MALT?	Respiratory, digestive, and urogenital tracts.
152	Approximately what percentage of lymphoid tissue in the human body is MALT?	About 50%.
153	What does AIDS stand for?	Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
154	When was AIDS first reported?	1981.
155	Which virus causes AIDS?	Human Immuno deficiency Virus (HIV).
156	HIV belongs to which group of viruses?	Retroviruses.
157	What type of genome does HIV possess?	RNA genome enclosed in an envelope.
158	Mention the major modes of HIV transmission.	Sexual contact, contaminated blood transfusion, sharing infected needles, and infected mother to child through placenta.
159	Which groups are at high risk of HIV infection?	Individuals with multiple sexual partners, intravenous drug abusers, repeated blood transfusion patients, and children born to infected mothers.
160	Does HIV spread through touch or physical contact?	No, it spreads only through body fluids.
161	What is the usual incubation period before AIDS symptoms appear?	Usually 5–10 years.
162	Which cells are first entered by HIV after entering the body?	Macrophages.
163	Which enzyme helps HIV RNA form viral DNA?	Reverse transcriptase.
164	Into what does viral DNA get incorporated?	Host cell DNA.
165	Why are macrophages called HIV factories?	Because they continuously produce HIV particles.
166	Which lymphocytes are attacked by HIV?	Helper T-lymphocytes (TH cells).
167	What happens to helper T-lymphocytes during HIV infection?	Their number progressively decreases.
168	Mention symptoms seen during HIV infection.	Fever, diarrhoea, and weight loss.
169	Why do AIDS patients become susceptible to many infections?	Due to decreased helper T-lymphocytes causing immunodeficiency.
170	Which diagnostic test is widely used for AIDS?	ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay).
171	Are anti-retroviral drugs completely effective against AIDS?	No, they only prolong life but cannot prevent death.
172	What is considered the best option against AIDS?	Prevention.
173	Which organisation in India works to educate people about AIDS?	National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO).
174	What measures are taken to prevent the spread of HIV infection?	Safe blood transfusion, use of disposable needles, free condom distribution, control of drug abuse, safe sex awareness, and regular HIV check-ups.
175	Why should HIV/AIDS infection not be hidden?	Because hiding it may spread infection to many more people.
176	What kind of support do HIV/AIDS patients need from society?	Help and sympathy instead of isolation.
177	What is cancer?	One of the most dreaded diseases and a major cause of death worldwide.
178	What happens to regulatory mechanisms in cancer cells?	There is a breakdown of normal growth and differentiation regulation.
179	What is contact inhibition?	A property of normal cells in which contact with other cells inhibits uncontrolled growth.
180	What happens when cancer cells lose contact inhibition?	They continue to divide and form tumors.
181	Name the two types of tumors.	Benign and malignant tumors.
182	What are benign tumors?	Tumors confined to their original location causing little damage.
183	What are malignant tumors?	Rapidly proliferating neoplastic cells that invade and damage surrounding tissues.
184	Why do cancer cells starve normal cells?	Because they compete for vital nutrients.
185	What is metastasis?	The spread of cancer cells to distant body parts where they form new tumors.
186	What are carcinogens?	Physical, chemical, or biological agents that induce cancer.
187	Which radiations can cause cancer?	Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays, and non-ionising UV radiations.
188	Which chemical carcinogen is a major cause of lung cancer?	Tobacco smoke.
189	What are oncogenic viruses?	Cancer-causing viruses containing viral oncogenes.
190	What are proto-oncogenes (c-onc)?	Cellular oncogenes in normal cells that can lead to cancer when activated.
191	Why is early detection of cancer important?	It allows successful treatment in many cases.
192	What is biopsy?	Removal and microscopic examination of suspected tissue sections.
193	Which imaging techniques help detect internal cancers?	Radiography, CT scan, and MRI.
194	What is the principle of CT scan?	It uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of internal organs.
195	What is the principle of MRI?	It uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect tissue changes.
196	How are antibodies used in cancer detection?	Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens help detect certain cancers.
197	How can molecular biology help in cancer prevention?	By identifying genes predisposing individuals to certain cancers.
198	Which common carcinogen should susceptible individuals avoid in lung cancer?	Tobacco smoke.
199	What are common methods used for cancer treatment?	Surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and immunotherapy.
200	What is done in radiotherapy?	Tumor cells are lethally irradiated while protecting surrounding normal tissues.
201	Mention common side effects of chemotherapeutic drugs.	Hair loss and anemia.
202	Which biological response modifier is used in cancer immunotherapy?	α-interferon.
203	Which drugs are commonly abused according to the text?	Opioids, cannabinoids, and coca alkaloids.
204	From where are most abused drugs obtained?	Flowering plants.
205	What are opioids?	Drugs that bind to specific opioid receptors in the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
206	What is heroin chemically known as?	Diacetylmorphine.
207	What are the physical characteristics of heroin?	White, odourless, bitter crystalline compound.
208	How is heroin obtained?	By acetylation of morphine extracted from the latex of *Papaver somniferum*.
209	What is the common name of heroin?	Smack.
210	How is heroin generally taken?	By snorting and injection.
211	What effect does heroin have on the body?	It acts as a depressant and slows down body functions.
212	What are cannabinoids?	Chemicals that interact with cannabinoid receptors mainly present in the brain.
213	From which plant are natural cannabinoids obtained?	*Cannabis sativa*.
214	Which parts of the cannabis plant are used to prepare drugs?	Flower tops, leaves, and resin.
215	Name drugs prepared from cannabis.	Marijuana, hashish, charas, and ganja.
216	How are cannabinoids generally consumed?	By inhalation and oral ingestion.
217	Which body system is mainly affected by cannabinoids?	Cardiovascular system.
218	From which plant is cocaine obtained?	*Erythroxylum coca*.
219	Which neurotransmitter transport is interfered with by cocaine?	Dopamine transport.
220	What are the common names of cocaine?	Coke or crack.
221	How is cocaine usually taken?	By snorting.
222	What effect does cocaine produce on the CNS?	Euphoria and increased energy.
223	What can excessive dosage of cocaine cause?	Hallucinations.
224	Name hallucinogenic plants mentioned in the text.	*Atropa belladona* and *Datura*.
225	Which categories of medicinal drugs are often abused?	Barbiturates, amphetamines, and benzodiazepines.
226	For which conditions are barbiturates and benzodiazepines normally prescribed?	Depression and insomnia.
227	Why is morphine medically important?	It is an effective sedative and painkiller, especially after surgery.
228	What is drug abuse?	Use of drugs for non-medicinal purposes or in amounts impairing physical or psychological functions.
229	Which alkaloid is present in tobacco?	Nicotine.
230	Which hormones are released due to nicotine stimulation?	Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.
231	What effects do adrenaline and nor-adrenaline have on the body?	They increase blood pressure and heart rate.
232	Which diseases are associated with smoking?	Lung cancer, bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart disease, gastric ulcer, and cancers of urinary bladder and throat.
233	Which cancer risk increases due to tobacco chewing?	Cancer of the oral cavity.
234	How does smoking affect oxygen transport in blood?	It increases carbon monoxide and reduces oxyhaemoglobin concentration causing oxygen deficiency.
235	What is adolescence according to the text?	A period and process during which a child becomes mature in attitudes and beliefs.
236	What is the usual age range of adolescence?	12–18 years.
237	Why is adolescence considered a vulnerable phase?	Due to biological and behavioural changes along with mental and psychological development.
238	What are common causes motivating youngsters towards drug and alcohol use?	Curiosity, need for adventure, excitement, and experimentation.
239	How does curiosity contribute to drug and alcohol use?	It motivates children to experiment with drugs or alcohol.
240	Why do some adolescents continue using drugs or alcohol after experimentation?	To escape facing problems and due to perceived benefits.
241	Which academic-related factor contributes to substance abuse among youth?	Stress from pressure to excel in academics or examinations.
242	Which social factors are associated with adolescent drug and alcohol abuse?	Unstable family structure and peer pressure.
243	What is addiction?	Psychological attachment to effects like euphoria and temporary well-being associated with drugs and alcohol.
244	What is dependence in drug/alcohol abuse?	The tendency of the body to show withdrawal symptoms when drug or alcohol use is stopped abruptly.
245	Why do repeated drug users require higher doses over time?	Because receptor tolerance levels increase with repeated use.
246	What is withdrawal syndrome?	Characteristic unpleasant symptoms occurring after abrupt discontinuation of drugs or alcohol.
247	Mention common withdrawal symptoms.	Anxiety, shakiness, nausea, and sweating.
248	What severe consequence can dependence cause socially?	Ignoring social norms and engaging in stealing to obtain money for drugs/alcohol.
249	What are immediate adverse effects of drug and alcohol abuse?	Reckless behaviour, vandalism, and violence.
250	What can excessive drug dosage lead to?	Coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart failure, or cerebral hemorrhage.
251	Why is combining drugs with alcohol dangerous?	It can result in overdosing and death.
252	Mention warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among youth.	Poor academic performance, unexplained absence, depression, fatigue, aggression, isolation, and deteriorating relationships.
253	How can drug/alcohol abuse affect family and friends?	It can cause mental and financial distress.
254	Why are intravenous drug users at higher risk of AIDS and Hepatitis B?	Due to sharing infected needles and syringes.
255	How can AIDS and Hepatitis B spread besides infected needles?	Through sexual contact or infected blood.
256	What long-term effect can alcohol use during adolescence cause?	Heavy drinking in adulthood.
257	Which organs are damaged by chronic use of drugs and alcohol?	Nervous system and liver (cirrhosis).
258	How does drug/alcohol use during pregnancy affect the foetus?	It adversely affects foetal development.
259	Why do some sportspersons misuse drugs?	To enhance muscle strength, bulk, aggressiveness, and athletic performance.
260	Which substances are commonly misused by athletes?	Narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics, and certain hormones.
261	Mention side effects of anabolic steroids in females.	Masculinisation, aggressiveness, depression, abnormal menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth, enlarged clitoris, and deep voice.
262	Mention side effects of anabolic steroids in males.	Acne, reduced testicular size, decreased sperm production, liver/kidney dysfunction, breast enlargement, baldness, and enlarged prostate gland.
263	What effect can anabolic steroids have on adolescents?	Severe acne and premature closure of growth centres causing stunted growth.
264	What type of parenting lowers the risk of substance abuse?	Parenting with high nurturance and consistent discipline.
265	Why should children not be pushed beyond their limits?	To avoid undue peer pressure and stress related to studies, sports, or activities.
266	What healthy activities can help prevent drug and alcohol abuse?	Sports, reading, music, yoga, and extracurricular activities.
267	Why is education and counselling important in adolescence?	To help adolescents face problems, stress, disappointments, and failures.
268	From whom should adolescents seek help regarding substance abuse problems?	Parents, peers, trusted friends, teachers, psychologists, and psychiatrists.
269	What should alert parents and teachers look for in adolescents?	Danger signs of drug and alcohol abuse.
270	Why is early identification of substance abuse important?	It helps initiate proper remedial steps and treatment.
271	Which professional programmes help drug/alcohol addicts recover?	De-addiction and rehabilitation programmes.
272	Define health according to the summary.	A state of complete physical, mental, social, and psychological well-being.
273	Name some infectious diseases mentioned in the summary.	Typhoid, cholera, pneumonia, fungal skin infections, and malaria.
274	Which malaria-causing organism may prove fatal if untreated?	*Plasmodium falciparum*.
275	Which public health measures help prevent infectious diseases?	Proper waste disposal, clean drinking water, vector control, immunisation, and hygiene.
276	What are the innate defence mechanisms of the body?	Skin, mucous membranes, antimicrobial substances in tears and saliva, and phagocytic cells.
277	Which immune responses kill pathogens after they enter the body?	Humoral immune response and cell-mediated immune response.
278	What property of the immune system forms the basis of vaccination?	Immunological memory.
279	Which virus causes AIDS?	Human Immuno-deficiency Virus (HIV).
280	Can AIDS be prevented?	Yes, by taking proper precautions.
281	Why are many cancers curable?	Because they can be treated successfully if detected early.
282	Why may adolescents try alcohol or drugs?	Due to stress, peer pressure, competition, and perceived relief from stress.
283	What can repeated use of alcohol or drugs lead to?	Addiction.
284	What measures can relieve individuals from alcohol/drug abuse?	Education, counselling, professional help, and medical assistance.
285	What does MALT stand for?	Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue.
286	What does CMI stand for?	Cell-Mediated Immunity.
287	What does NACO stand for?	National AIDS Control Organisation.
288	Name the primary lymphoid organs.	Bone marrow and thymus.
289	Differentiate between innate and acquired immunity.	Innate immunity is non-specific and present from birth, while acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and has memory.
290	Differentiate between active and passive immunity.	Active immunity develops after exposure to antigens, while passive immunity is obtained by transfer of ready-made antibodies.